Math geekery ahead...
So, I wasted a ridiculous amount of time this week on
Polymath's blog arguing mostly with math illiterates over the fact that
.999... = 1. As of right now, the comment count for
that post and
the three follow-ups comes out to 762, involving probably around 50 people. Of course, this is probably because the story was
farked.
It really is a very simple problem, and I've only ever had one math person I respect disagree with me on it (and that conversation was short, so I can't say why), but it seems to really offend many peoples' sensibilities for some reason. There are
so many different ways to prove it, however, that I really can't fathom how anyone can reasonably deny it. So, since the doubters in polymath's comments couldn't find any way to really disprove his proofs, they began resorting to ever more bizarre claims - including denying that 1/3 = 0.333... and doubting the validity of all of mathematics because of this one break from their intuition! I actually had to
prove that "1/3 = 0.333..." to one commenter; I'm reproducing that proof in a cut here just because I couldn't format it correctly in the comments.
( proof )One can actually use a
very similar proof to demonstrate the point of contention; see "The real proof"
here. But one doesn't even have to go that far, because it's really simpler than any huge math proofs. It has to do with the nature of real numbers. See, real numbers are a continuous set - between any two real numbers, by definition, there are
infinite other real numbers. Between 0.1 and 0.2, for example, there are 0.100001, 0.100002, 0.199998, etc. Between 0.999... and 1.000..., however, there are NO numbers. If one subtracts 0.999... from 1, there is no number one can get other than 0. So since there are no numbers between them, they are equal
by definition.
Now, many people at this point resort to creating their own notation and try to posit that 1 - 0.999... = 0.000...1. But this number is both incorrect notation and a meaningless figure - the ellipses indicate an INFINITE set of zeros. How can you have a 1 at the end of an endless series? You can't, otherwise the series would be finite.
Other people try to say that 0.999...
approaches 1. These people are thinking of asymptotic functions, such as f(x) = 1/x, wherein f(x) approaches but never actually reaches zero. But this is a mistake, because 0.999... is not a function - it is a number. A single number. It doesn't approach anything; f(x) = 0.999... is just a horizontal line.
If you have a math background and you disagree with polymath's analysis or mine, I encourage you to comment on why you disagree.
Tags: geekery, math, rant
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